If we test/verify everything by Scripture, how do we verify the list of canonical books using Scripture alone? To ask it another way: Since the table of contents in our Bible is not inspired, it must be what Protestants would call a man-made tradition that must be tested by the light of Scripture. But what purely Scriptural test can we perform on that table of contents to determine that the books listed there belong in the Bible? If we cannot verify it using Scripture alone but must go outside the Bible to verify it, aren’t we just accepting a “man-made tradition” as infallible without Scriptural proof?

And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women. (Luke 1:28, Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition)

This verse is often quoted by Catholics who wish to provide questioning Protestants Biblical proof for the Immaculate Conception. However, it is highly doubtful that this verse, all by itself, is sufficient to confirm the dogma. At best, it is only one part of what is needed and so is not the one silver bullet that will slay the skepticism of the Protestant once and for all.

The part of this verse that is used to prove the Immaculate Conception is the phrase full of grace. Although this translation renders the angel’s greeting in Luke 1:28 with these words, it is possible that the underlying Greek conveys a meaning that does not go quite as far as that. The phrase is actually a single word in Greek: κεχαριτωμένη (kecharitwmenei), a perfect passive participle that means one having been favored.

It seems clear that the Greek text underlying the phrase indicates something entirely different. We can definitely conclude from that text that she was favored. We can even conclude from the context that she was highly favored, since she was to be the mother of God—truly a unique, special role—and that she should be honored. We can also conclude from the perfect tense that the grace had been given to her at some point in the past and had continued to the present time (from the standpoint of the speaker). But to the best of my knowledge, that is the most that this text tells us.

Does all this mean that Mary was not in fact full of grace and that the dogma of the Immaculate Conception is wrong? No! As a Catholic, I definitely affirm the Church’s teaching on this matter, but I’m not so sure that it can be proven from Luke 1:28 alone. We also need the Magisterium and Sacred Tradition to complete the picture. Therefore, trying to convince the skeptical Protestant with this one verse is a dubious approach, because it is at odds with the Church’s stance that Christian truth is based not on Scripture alone but rather on the three-legged stool of Scripture, the Magisterium, and Sacred Tradition.